murder, for example, is maliciously taking the life of another human being. the murderer is causing harm not only to the other person, but also to himself by desensitizing him to death and further evil actions. theft is cheating another person out of what he has due to selfish desires and not caring about anyone but himself. coveting is similar and often leads to theft. dishonoring parents denotes a lack of respect and love, and again reflects selfish thinking and malice. lying is deceptive and manipulative and like the others reflects selfishness and a lack of love toward others
if you look at the first four (I'm taking these from the 10 commandments for the sake of convenience) God wants full respect and devotion towards Him. the first commandment prohibits placing something else in a higher position than God, the second prohibits creating and asserting one's own interpretation of the nature of God over the real God (sometimes this involved making statues that were called idols), the third prohibits invoking God's name where it does not belong (like swearing or perhaps using God's name to justify something that is not of God), and the fourth requires people to set a specific day aside for the purpose of honoring God
now I skipped adultery because that seems to be the main subject in this debate. what could be defined as adultery?
- Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery: But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
fornication is similar to adultery in a sense because they are both driven by the same thing (lustful desire) only in "fornication" the perpetrator is not married, while in "adultery" the perpetrator is married
given these definitions, what then (if it can be classified as sin) is homosexuality?
if a homosexual is married to a member of the opposite sex, and they betray their partner to have sex with someone who is of the same sex, I feel that qualifies as adultery because they had sex outside of the union they had already pledged themselves to; the perpetrator is married, therefore it is adultery
now in fornication the sex act is the same and based off the same desire, but in this case, the perpetrator is seeking sex with someone who is married, or with a prostitute, or with multiple people in all, due to lust. if God defines marriage as the "union" (sex) then a man who has sex for the first time is not necessarily fornicating unless unless he leaves the partner and goes after another
now here's my next question: could homosexuality, if the homosexual is not married, be considered fornication?
let's take two cases: one, the homosexual in question is a male teenager and has sex with another male, but later on leaves his partner for another and has sex with him. this no doubt should be seen as fornication, am I correct?
case two: the homosexual in question is a male adult who finds another male and chooses him to be his partner for life, then they lie down together and have sex. is this fornication?
homosexuality, by definition, is an enduring sexual and romantic attraction to the same sex. is as much a part of the homosexual person's nature as heterosexual orientation is to a heterosexual person's nature, and according to nearly every respected psychological organization out there, is a completely natural and psychologically healthy variation of normal sexual orientation. therefore it cannot be a lust, but a morally neutral basic human drive, like a heterosexual drive, only towards members of the same sex instead of the opposite sex
but is a homosexual act fornication? not necessarily, if fornication ultimately involves multiple sex partners. it cannot be adultery either because no one is married. therefore if it was a sexual sin it could not be defined as either one of the two
the question now is whether any form of intercourse that does not involve both a penis and vagina is indeed a sin. this itself is a debatable subject because one can argue that God originally designed the vagina with a penis in mind; therefore going against that would be deviating from God's plan and thus, be considered sin. however, there appears to be somewhat of a double standard here considering God does not necessarily prohibit non-vaginal sex within a marriage, and the sexual sin mentioned throughout the Bible is more focused on how and why you have sex instead of what part of your body you have sex with. therefore the aspect of homosexual sex cannot be wrong simply because the body parts do not match up
could it be a sin because it was practiced in cults?
I've been doing some research lately on cult philosophy and the reason behind their obscene homosexual activities and cross dressing and found that they did this in order to emulate androgyny, or the aspect of being both male and female at once. their religious practices included fertility rites and rituals meant to symbolize the duality of male and female in sex. androgyny was seen as the two things at once representing the completion of male and female into one body, which was sacred and worshiped by the cults. they often participated in sex rituals that emulated androgyny, which included role reversals and homosexual sex in order to make themselves more androgynous
now some [many] people are born androgynous or hermaphroditic (approximately .5% of the population) and they cannot help that. why then is androgyny such a bad thing?
the problem with cults like these is that they strive for androgyny in order to transcend the natural human boundaries and become more godlike. it's an idea that seems to have descended from the motive behind the Tower of Babel, which was based on a philosophy much like transhumanism. the core idea of transhumanism is that human beings can reach perfection through a combination of all our talents, knowledge, religion, gender, technology, and others into one superbeing and become like a god (if anyone is familiar with Star Trek, it's a philosophy much like that of the Borg)
so with this in mind, is homosexuality in itself actually wrong?
I stated before that I do not believe God would prohibit something simply because He wanted to, but because there are consequences for actions. He is not unreasonable and would not make a rule for the sake of making a rule (the Garden of Eden could have been an exception because at the time the world was perfect and Adam and Eve did not have to be told the difference between right and wrong, but at the time God wanted to give them the option to obey Him or not)
as far as I can see, there are cause-effect consequences for every sin mentioned in the Bible down to murder, theft, adultery, fornication, disrespect for authority, lying, coveting, and others. if homosexuality was a sin, then it would be a special sin indeed, considering the fact that homosexually oriented people who commit themselves to a single same-sex partner for life are just as happy as "traditional" one-man-one-woman heterosexual couples. homosexuals who have had only one partner in their lives will not likely contract sexually transmitted diseases, whereas having more than one partner at all regardless of sex greatly increases that likelihood. interesting
let the debate continue